4 ms·
Then it wasn't lawfully gained at the time? Can you prove in court the laws at the time forbed that gain? If so take it from them with interest and punitive dam
by _8j50 4y ago
Then it wasn't lawfully gained at the time? Can you prove in court the laws at the time forbed that gain? If so take it from them with interest and punitive damages.
- TheCoelacanth 4y agoThen by that logic, if they simply pass a law saying that all the monarch's wealth is confiscated, everything is fine.
- pjc50 4y agoThere are plenty of situations such as wealth gained from slavery where it wasn't illegal at the time but remains morally tainted. (What proportion of the King's wealth derives from the time before Magna Carta and the concept of legal restraint on the Crown? Until then it was effectively impossible for anything the monarch did, including the most blatant theft and murder, to be deemed illegal) In re "stealing other peoples rightful inheritance", as a side comment, the Crown (but not the King) is the beneficiary of inheritances for which an owner cannot be found.
- diordiderot 4y agoI mean what a silly place to argue from. Was the norman conquest of england lawfully achieved at the time?
- TheCoelacanth 4y agoConquest was legal until the Kellogg-Briand Pact outlawed it in 1928, so yes /s
- LocalH 4y ago"lawfully gained at the time". So, theft under color of law.
- krapp 4y agoLook, there's an obvious way to resolve this that will satisfy everyone. Simply pass a law first, then legally eat the rich.