4 ms·
Nah, k=1 is the trivial base case and is allowed. The "assumption" is no such thing, but just notational convenience. One can of course tidy that up (e.g. n\leq
by diffeomorphism 4y ago
Nah, k=1 is the trivial base case and is allowed. The "assumption" is no such thing, but just notational convenience. One can of course tidy that up (e.g. n\leq m and trivial case is obvious), but for a random HN post it seems not worth the effort.
- kleiba 4y agoWell, I guess you're right. I mean, we're looking for two disctinct numbers as the final solution, but that doesn't mean we can't use k=1 in the proof.