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It's been a long time since my number theory class, but aren't there the same number of integers and odd integers? Take the set of odd integers {... -3, -1, 1,
by dwater 3y ago
It's been a long time since my number theory class, but aren't there the same number of integers and odd integers?
Take the set of odd integers {... -3, -1, 1, 3, 5, ...}
For each item, subtract one and divide the result by 2. Now you have the set of all integers without any insertions or deletions: {... -2, -1, 0, 1, 2, ...}
Therefore the set of odd integers can be mapped 1:1 onto the set of all integers so they are of equal length.
- ShamelessC 3y agoThey have the same cardinality.
- renewiltord 3y agoYour proof is correct.
- deleted 3y ago[deleted]
- RheingoldRiver 3y agoThat's why 'Prove' is in quotation marks. Not all of GP's statements are true, though it would've been helpful if they'd added (true) and (false) tags next to them.