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> In the US, something has to explicitly be made legal to be permitted. There has to be a law saying you have the right to do something. Well that's just flat-
by Sohcahtoa82 4y ago
> In the US, something has to explicitly be made legal to be permitted. There has to be a law saying you have the right to do something.
Well that's just flat-out incorrect.
- shadowgovt 4y agoIt's fairly correct regarding copyright, where the default is essentially that the creator owns the material and then every fair use is carved out as an exception to that default assumption. This makes fair use an affirmative defense, which is default risky because the process starts with somebody accusing you of wrongdoing (potentially criminal wrongdoing).
- Mindwipe 4y agoBut that is also the case in the UK. Indeed more so, the UK has nothing as wide ranging as US Fair Use, just a much more narrow list of permitted allowances.
- themaninthedark 4y agoYeah that is incorrect, and The Founders of the United States are crying right now. One of the reasons that some members were opposed to the bill of rights was because they were afraid that the population would take it as a defining list of things they were allowed to do, as opposed to the stated: "The Powers not delegated to the United States by the Constitution, nor prohibited by it to the States, are reserved to the States respectively, or to the people."