4 ms·
How much of that effect could be explained by the ability to afford better legal representation rather than direct preferential treatment?
by keldaris 4y ago
How much of that effect could be explained by the ability to afford better legal representation rather than direct preferential treatment?
- AnimalMuppet 4y agoA lot, maybe all. Still, if the rich get better legal outcomes than the poor, that's not justice, whether or not "better lawyers" is the mechanism.
- keldaris 4y agoCertainly not arguing that it's fair or just, but it's important to distinguish the mechanisms to have any hope of potentially improving the situation.