Is there not a proof using similar triangles somehow? Because the whole 'sine' part seems like a bit of a red herring, they're basically just considering a coup

Is there not a proof using similar triangles somehow? Because the whole 'sine' part seems like a bit of a red herring, they're basically just considering a couple of ratios between different lengths, they do not use any properties of the sine function as such (in particular it does not look like they're using sin(x)^2 + cos(x)^2 = 1, which would make the proof trivial)