How does it empirically prove general overfitness ? People study from books or from teachers or other sources of knowledge and internalize it and relate it to

How does it empirically prove general overfitness ? People study from books or from teachers or other sources of knowledge and internalize it and relate it to other concepts as well, and no one considers that to be a form of overfitting. You basically said what amounts to "it overfits to concepts" which is honestly quite ridiculous. Not only is it a standard humans would fail, that's not what overfit is generally taken to mean.