Note that this is "all cause death". Using the "all cause mortality" (which I assume to be the same) definition from https://www.cancer.gov/publications/diction

Note that this is "all cause death". Using the "all cause mortality" (which I assume to be the same) definition from https://www.cancer.gov/publications/dictionaries/cancer-terms/def/all-cause-mortality https://www.cancer.gov/publications/dictionaries/cancer-term...: "A term that refers to death from any cause. In statistics, all-cause mortality is usually a measure of the total number of deaths from any cause in a specific group of people over a specific period of time. For example, all-cause mortality may be reported for people who live in one area of the country or who are of a specific gender, age, race, or ethnic group." As I understand it, this means that light to moderate alcohol leads to no additional deaths of any kind for __a specific group in a specific time__. This being a meta-analysis of 4.8m people how did were they able to reduce variation enough to qualify so many to such a study. Meta-analyses are known to be fraught with problems: https://pubmed.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/7950571/ https://pubmed.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/7950571/. Besides, these studies contradict it directly: https://jamanetwork.com/journals/jamanetworkopen/fullarticle/2790520 https://jamanetwork.com/journals/jamanetworkopen/fullarticle... https://pubmed.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/26286216/ https://pubmed.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/26286216/ https://pubmed.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/22910838/ https://pubmed.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/22910838/ https://pubs.niaaa.nih.gov/publications/arh27-1/39-51.htm https://pubs.niaaa.nih.gov/publications/arh27-1/39-51.htm