4 ms·
I seem to remember reading in a business law textbook that the "innocent till proven guilty" only applies to criminal law. A quick Google search managed to pull
by gareim 15y ago
I seem to remember reading in a business law textbook that the "innocent till proven guilty" only applies to criminal law. A quick Google search managed to pull up a Hacker News comment that's interesting to read as well:
http://news.ycombinator.com/item?id=2483396 http://news.ycombinator.com/item?id=2483396
EDIT: Upon further reading, I'm wondering if this would fall under criminal law. But in the sentence, it mentions "civil forfeiture laws" and wouldn't that imply tort? I'm not a lawyer and have almost no experience in this. I hope a real lawyer will chime in because it's pretty fascinating.
- Retric 15y agoI don't think the founding fathers would have allowed the government to use "civil" laws lower standards at any point in time. But, our current systems has a lot of terrible precedent IMO. Which has enabled a huge end run around the constitution to continue with just a wink and a nod.