If you wanna get into the weeds, it's "disparate treatment discrimination" that requires “intent,” whereas disparate impact discrimination does not. But this i

If you wanna get into the weeds, it's "disparate treatment discrimination" that requires “intent,” whereas disparate impact discrimination does not. But this is maybe a useless discussion about the technical requirements. In practice winning a case without proving intent is extremely rare from what I've read Please correct me if I'm wrong