4 ms·
No because there’s no dish that’s a curry. It’s a component of a dish. Furthermore it’s a very specific component historically pepper based. This is the proble
by dagmx 4y ago
No because there’s no dish that’s a curry. It’s a component of a dish. Furthermore it’s a very specific component historically pepper based.
This is the problem. You borrowed a word that you don’t understand the depth of and are now arguing that it should be used in your way when people raise what it actually means. It’s a co-opting of a cultures word and cuisines.
There is no dish that’s “curry”. The British generalized it to be all spiced thick stews.
Would you call an eggs Benedict “a hollandaise”? Or roast potato’s as “chips”? No because there’s specifics to a dish that you afford it because you’re familiar with it. Calling them curries and expecting that to be the actual term is ignorance.
- notahacker 4y agoI'm not arguing it should be used in a particular way. On the contrary, I am specifically not insisting that the Telugu speaker and his grandparents' less specific use of kura is incorrect simply because it resembles the mostly more recent (and seldom pejorative, FWIW) use of its British English cognate. "Chips" is an interesting example to bring up, because the word means completely different preparations of potatoes in different parts of the Anglosphere...