3 ms·
That's incorrect. The assumption was that there was a 1:1 (injective) mapping, and the proof was that it (regardless of it's exact value) wasn't onto (surjecti
by hgsgm 4y ago
That's incorrect. The assumption was that there was a 1:1 (injective) mapping, and the proof was that it (regardless of it's exact value) wasn't onto (surjective) and so isn't bijective.
- sorokod 4y agoTrue when replacing "1 to 1 mapping" with "1:1 injective mapping"