Your comment is saying "suffer(poor) > suffer(rich)" is true by definition. But the article is saying "d suffer(poor) / d(inflation) > d suffer(rich) / d(infla

Your comment is saying "suffer(poor) > suffer(rich)" is true by definition. But the article is saying "d suffer(poor) / d(inflation) > d suffer(rich) / d(inflation)", the truth of which is not immediately obvious.