If the reasoning was actually based on an ex post facto analysis, wouldn’t it have to apply broadly to all actors and all civil lawsuits? The fact that qualifi

If the reasoning was actually based on an ex post facto analysis, wouldn’t it have to apply broadly to all actors and all civil lawsuits? The fact that qualified immunity only applies to state actors in their job functions makes me skeptical of the “ex post facto” reasoning. If that’s the case, why isn’t it a much more broad concept?