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No True Scotsman is relevant only when one cannot objectively define a True Scotsman (i.e. not in a recursive manner). Here we have an objective, original, una
by BeetleB 4y ago
No True Scotsman is relevant only when one cannot objectively define a True Scotsman (i.e. not in a recursive manner).
Here we have an objective, original, unambiguous definition of DRY. So no, this is not a No True Scotsman fallacy.