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Your recitals are correct, yes. But this: > the bank was insolvent long before that. Well, not quite. Insolvency was achieved the moment of the bank run. Unti
by eganist 4y ago
Your recitals are correct, yes. But this:
> the bank was insolvent long before that.
Well, not quite. Insolvency was achieved the moment of the bank run. Until then, the bank was fully solvent based on the value of its liquid assets, including stock, against whatever obligations they had at that point in time.
Once the bank run started, that's when withdrawals outpaced what they could fulfill through the sale of their liquid assets. Hence insolvency, and illiquidity very rapidly thereafter.
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edit:
> as the bank was insolvent ever since the feds hiked rates.
This is less "not quite" and more "not at all" as it misunderstands what insolvency is - the inability to pay debts at maturity.
- Aperocky 4y agoSo what should it be called? There's got to be a name for it where the mark to market asset values are below that of liabilities right?
- kgwgk 4y ago> insolvency is - the inability to pay debts at maturity What is the maturity of deposits?
- eganist 4y agoFor all practical purposes, the moment of withdrawal. Though the FRB states that "maturity" is not something that applies to these types of accounts. https://www.federalreserve.gov/boarddocs/supmanual/cch/200601/int_depos.pdf https://www.federalreserve.gov/boarddocs/supmanual/cch/20060... page 2 That's also why CDs exist. Far easier for FIs to actually do something with the money when you lock up with them and drastically reduce the risk of you withdrawing it. Edit: Fed source.
- kgwgk 4y agoDo you consider a bank with one billion in deposits and one million in assets solvent as long as there are no withdrawals? Are Ponzi schemes solvent until they collapse?
- shkkmo 4y ago> it misunderstands what insolvency is - the inability to pay debts at maturity. This is redefining insolvency based on the (legally sanctioned) accounting trickery of classifying assets as HTM.