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Sadly that isn’t how we measure inequality because it doesn’t makes sense. By your method a feudal society is perfectly equal since only a fraction of the popul
by dogma1138 4y ago
Sadly that isn’t how we measure inequality because it doesn’t makes sense. By your method a feudal society is perfectly equal since only a fraction of the population has any wealth whilst the rest slave away in the fields…
- coldtea 4y ago>Sadly that isn’t how we measure inequality Who is "we"? The gini coeffient does measure income inequality similar to that. And yes, a feudal society would be more equal... For example, a feudal society of, say, 50,000 peasant and a single lord, where each peasant makes 80 units of money, and the lord's tax cut is 10% (a common tax at the time, called a "tithe"), will have a gini coefficient of 0,09 (where 0 = full equality, and 1 = total inequality).
- deleted 4y ago[deleted]
- dogma1138 4y agoWe’re not talking about income inequality. The Gini coefficient always had its shortcomings which is why it’s rarely used in its pure form.
- em-bee 4y agothere is a gini coefficient for wealth too. and if you look at the numbers, both the income and the wealth coefficient in the US is worse than in europe
- coldtea 4y ago>We’re not talking about income inequality. Aren't we? Isn't the very title of this HN post "why aren't you making" X amount? In any case, wealth distribution is more or less the same regarding US and EU: EU fares better (less inequality). It also fares better in more humane lifestyle for more...