But from what I read it's common for FDIC to "sell" to the acquiring bank at a price that wouldn't make a loss. So if you marked to market all those long term

But from what I read it's common for FDIC to "sell" to the acquiring bank at a price that wouldn't make a loss. So if you marked to market all those long term bonds and then sold SVB to a bigger bank at the resulting (possibly negative) valuation. Why wouldn't a big bank take that deal?