> I take issue with this reasoning in that firstly: it lacks a denominator, VPNs are a larger source of traffic in general, abuse should be considered as a rati

> I take issue with this reasoning in that firstly: it lacks a denominator, VPNs are a larger source of traffic in general, abuse should be considered as a ratio. Why do you assume they don't do this and that VPN traffic doesn't have a much higher rate of abuse? Having significant legitimate traffic and a much higher rate of abusive traffic are not mutually exclusive.