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While I personally think there ARE gains, even if you insist on there being no gains then there is simple tax adjustment. An employee is compensated with *cont
by friendzis 4y ago
While I personally think there ARE gains, even if you insist on there being no gains then there is simple tax adjustment.
An employee is compensated with *contracts* to buy stock. Those contracts *themselves* are valued at the strike price, i.e. an employee is accounted to gain ${strike-price} worth of value.
At some point said employee decides to exercise said option contracts, i.e. convert contracts to stock. At the moment of conversion stocks are worth x and ${strike-price} previously paid to employee magically turns into x.
You can either think that employee gained `x - ${strike-price}`, or that employee was previously taxed on ${strike-price} and tax base was adjusted to x. In any case there is income equal to `x - ${strike-price}`.
- KptMarchewa 4y ago> While I personally think there ARE gains, even if you insist on there being no gains then there is simple tax adjustment. How are those gains if you're explicitely forbidden to turn those gains into legal tender? You'd get same tax when IPO hits - just without that earlier step.