3 ms·
That's the rule, but what is it based on? Why does it need to be proportional to income? It seems pretty arbitrary. It would be more correct to use actual livi
by HPsquared 4y ago
That's the rule, but what is it based on? Why does it need to be proportional to income? It seems pretty arbitrary.
It would be more correct to use actual living costs in a given area (food, transport, etc.).
- hnburnsy 4y agoIt is set by the organizations that purchase mortgages from the bank. If the borrowers don't meet these guidelines they won't buy the mortgage and the bank would need to hold it, which they typically don't want to. See FNMA and FHLMC.
- hnburnsy 4y agohttps://selling-guide.fanniemae.com/Selling-Guide/Origination-thru-Closing/Subpart-B3-Underwriting-Borrowers/Chapter-B3-6-Liability-Assessment/1032992131/B3-6-02-Debt-to-Income-Ratios-02-05-2020.htm https://selling-guide.fanniemae.com/Selling-Guide/Originatio...