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No, it is not possible. All demand is derived from households living in homes, regardless of whether the households are purchasing them directly or renting thr
by throwaway09223 4y ago
No, it is not possible.
All demand is derived from households living in homes, regardless of whether the households are purchasing them directly or renting through an intermediary (long or short term).
There are no other uses for a home. No other source of demand across the market.
- anonymouskimmer 4y agoIt depends on zoning. Rarely houses are used as storefronts, museums, or businesses such as psychologists and dentists offices. Other times houses are used by rich mostly-foreigners as places to stash cash. And not all of these investors care whether the house is occupied by a renter. These aren't large uses of houses, but they are some.