4 ms·
> [only] "one side had slaves states" No. It implies the opposite. The assumption was that only the confederates had slave states. My comment debunks that noti
by yrdmb 4y ago
> [only] "one side had slaves states"
No. It implies the opposite. The assumption was that only the confederates had slave states. My comment debunks that notion.
Everybody knows that the confederacy had slaves. Now they know both sides had slave states.
Nice try.