4 ms·
this is pedantic, but the parent comment was conjugating "to have" to "had" via the subjunctive, not via the past tense
by permo-w 4y ago
this is pedantic, but the parent comment was conjugating "to have" to "had" via the subjunctive, not via the past tense
- udev4096 4y agoHe's right tho
- permo-w 4y agooh yeah of course, no question there
- wodenokoto 4y agoI don’t know what a subjunctive is. Maybe that is what caused the confusion.