The problem is when "fair market value" differs between two people for reasons other than their work productivity - including protected classes such as race, ge

The problem is when "fair market value" differs between two people for reasons other than their work productivity - including protected classes such as race, gender, etc. Is it illegal? No. Immoral? I'd argue yes, if the only reason you get to pay them less is that the broader market is biased against them for reasons outside of their control.