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The answer to the question the article poses, FTA: Because the definition of "songwriting" has changed since the 1960s, and not just due to "sampling." It's st
by genewitch 4y ago
The answer to the question the article poses, FTA: Because the definition of "songwriting" has changed since the 1960s, and not just due to "sampling."
It's still a decent read, but if you want to argue the nuance, this is what the article says.
- yamtaddle 4y agoCan't pull the tricks from The KLF's The Manual: How to Have a Number 1 the Easy Way to get free and uncredited songwriting work out of people anymore, then?
- ipaddr 4y agoNever heard of it before but it is worth sharing: https://archive.org/details/TheManualHowToHaveANumber1TheEasyWay/page/n14/mode/1up https://archive.org/details/TheManualHowToHaveANumber1TheEas...
- Spastche 4y agothis is worth watching too https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=_2kbZLcsQUo https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=_2kbZLcsQUo
- whstl 4y agoI assume you're talking about crediting beat makers, arrangers and producers rather than just the "traditional" way of crediting the people who come up with the melody and lyrics? If so, I agree with an addendum: I think it's more about the "culture" around songwriting credits rather than the definition itself, as this was kind of always possible to do, and some people today still do the "old way". For example, back in the 60s/70s some bands like The Doors and Deep Purple would credit the whole band. And sometimes producers would also get credit, like Brian Eno with Talking Heads from the top of my head.