> The relationship between complete vaccination scheme (at least two doses applied with 14 days or more since the last dose) So the groups are 1) people who ha

> The relationship between complete vaccination scheme (at least two doses applied with 14 days or more since the last dose) So the groups are 1) people who haven't got the shots plus people who have but haven't had 14 days pass after their second shot (if they got it), and 2) people who have had the shots and 14 days pass after their second one. What does it look like if you break that first group into two, those who are actually unvaccinated, and those who are not? Would it change the odds ratio? It's often claimed that vaccine adverse events only happen shortly after administration... so that would imply that many of the adverse events would be assigned to the "unvaccinated" group, no?