> (conversely, everyone in the EU who hears about US ""right to work"" interprets it as some kind of 1984 euphemism for "you can be fired with no notice or seve

> (conversely, everyone in the EU who hears about US ""right to work"" interprets it as some kind of 1984 euphemism for "you can be fired with no notice or severance") Is that an incorrect interpretation?