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Why centuries before Einstein and not one century before Galileo?
by credit_guy 4y ago
Why centuries before Einstein and not one century before Galileo?
- sdenton4 4y agoOr, for that matter, Newton....
- credit_guy 4y agoI would say that Newton had an insight unprecedented in the history of science: that phenomena as seemingly unrelated as the fall of an apple from a tree and the motion of the moon and planets are caused by the same physical laws. Leonardo does not show any hint of even thinking about this.
- prox 4y agoNot yet anyway. Who know what else is in those notebooks. Slightly /s, but it’s interesting that we still find new observations in his notebooks.
- panda-giddiness 4y agoThe equivalence of gravity and acceleration is one of the major ideas of general relativity. https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Equivalence_principle https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Equivalence_principle
- Trombone12 4y agoBut that is certainly not what is being claimed here. What TFA says is that they think Leonardo correctly realised that falling things accelerate, as opposed to fall with a constant speed as (the ancient) Aristotelian physics prescribed. To go all the way to the (Einsteinian) equivalence principle from that is huffing great man hopium in the extreme: Leonardo is certainly not as user of reference frames, and the equivalence principle simply does not exist without them. Another problem is that he didn't know of inertia, what with being of the Aristotelian school.