It's a bit ambiguous to me in that Merck originally argued that molnupiravir would be less susceptible to resistance for Reason A, then now that the bad news is

It's a bit ambiguous to me in that Merck originally argued that molnupiravir would be less susceptible to resistance for Reason A, then now that the bad news is coming out, we have a plausible sounding explanation Reason B that it does have a weakness to resistance. The fact that the stated reasons can just flip on a dime like that bothers me intellectually. But on another level the whole issue is less relevant than the fact that the West has already been recommending Paxlovid over molnupiravir anyways, not because of resistance concerns but because Paxlovid works better and has less side effects, etc.