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That sounds to me like it’s just accounting spin. If I sell something with a 2-for-1 deal, what are the ways that’s different from selling two for 50% off? If
by RangerScience 4y ago
That sounds to me like it’s just accounting spin.
If I sell something with a 2-for-1 deal, what are the ways that’s different from selling two for 50% off?
If I am paid to work 40 hours a week, and I work 80, are the second 40 free, or are all 80 %50 my expected wage?
> free to leave
<spicy> Ah! I see we agree on the need for such a robust social safety net that employment isn’t any degree of necessary! </spicy>
- nickff 4y agoIf your employer knowingly and willfully doubles your pay without changing the contract, are you stealing from them? I think not, and it's just the other side of the coin.
- RangerScience 4y agoHold up. Your prior comment didn’t use the word “steal”, so I didn’t think you were talking about theft. Your prior comment used the word “free”, so I thought you were talking about “free”. I was talking about “free” and I was not talking about “stealing”. That’s why I used the word “free” and did not use the word “stealing”. Regarding your hypothetical, I’d say they’d be giving you approximately free money in much the same was as in the prior hypothetical you’d be giving them approximately free labor.
- malermeister 4y agoNo, it would merely reduce the amount stolen from you. See here [0] for more theory , but the basic tl;dr is since all value is created by labor being done (your employer, the capitalist doesn't actually do anything to create value) and not all of it is paid out in the form of wages, the workers are being exploited since value is being stolen. Reducing the amount of that wage theft is not the other side of the coin. [0] https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Surplus_value https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Surplus_value