2 ms·
Mostly yes (but we can probably debate semantics). It is not at all obvious that the inverse beta should be proportional to what we conventionally call temperat
by krastanov 4y ago
Mostly yes (but we can probably debate semantics). It is not at all obvious that the inverse beta should be proportional to what we conventionally call temperature. One needs to prove that.
- kgwgk 4y agoOnce we define the entropy its integrating factor is what we conventionally call temperature. I agree that correspondence between things is not obvious - but once defined it seems to work and I don’t know if we could have more proof than that. I also agree that thermodynamics is worth studying in itself - and otherwise the attempt to reproduce it using statistical mechanics doesn’t make a lot of sense.