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I have a question regarding the direct computation of the error sizes via the inverse error function. Does this not assume that the sample error is normally dis
by jandalf 4y ago
I have a question regarding the direct computation of the error sizes via the inverse error function. Does this not assume that the sample error is normally distributed whereas it is hypergeometric (binomial in approximation)? Has anybody a link which explains this way of error estimation in detail? I would have used an exact confidence interval + its half width, but I am no expert in statistics.
- ericpauley 4y agoThe binomial distribution quickly converges towards the normal distribution for large n, so this relaxation is pretty commonly used.
- 6gvONxR4sf7o 4y agoThe law of large numbers comes into play here. The average of a thing quickly becomes gaussian in a huge variety of circumstances.