At first glance, this article seems somewhat parochial. I'm honestly not aware of any explicit counter-culture earlier than, say, the Bohemians in 19th century

At first glance, this article seems somewhat parochial. I'm honestly not aware of any explicit counter-culture earlier than, say, the Bohemians in 19th century Europe. Maybe the Renaissance counts. But both of those are European. It's a question I've been interested in for a while but never explored. How common is it, historically, to have significant cultural shifts from one generation to the next?