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> Crimea had barely any Russians until the mid-19th century and no outright majority until the mid-20th. And it had considerably fewer Ukrainians[1]. The Ukrai
by User23 4y ago
> Crimea had barely any Russians until the mid-19th century and no outright majority until the mid-20th.
And it had considerably fewer Ukrainians[1]. The Ukrainian claim to Crimea is weaker than Russia's.
[1] https://upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/commons/6/6a/Ethnic_Population_of_Crimea_18th%E2%80%9321st_century.png https://upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/commons/6/6a/Ethnic_P...
- mannerheim 4y agoAnd that has absolutely nothing to do with anything I said; your claim was that Crimea was populated with Russians since Rurik, which is maybe true but extremely misleading because it constituted a percentage point or two at best. Bringing up the Ukrainian population accounts for nought unless you're suggesting expelling all the Slavs from Crimea and returning it to Tatar rule. > The Ukrainian claim to Crimea is weaker than Russia's. The Ukrainian claim to Crimea is stronger because they have a legal basis to its claim. If we return to a state of the world where claims to land are made on the basis of 'my group lives here, therefore it's ours', we will inevitably reap the consequences of post-war Europe. On the same logic, Germany had a stronger claim to the Sudetenland than Czechoslovakia. But what did that get the Germans in the end? Complete expulsion from the Sudetenland.