I think you presume that human behavior must seem to have a cognitive reason for the "why", when it's entirely possible that the "why" is simply physiological/n

I think you presume that human behavior must seem to have a cognitive reason for the "why", when it's entirely possible that the "why" is simply physiological/neurological. In the case of intense opiates, which have a profound effect on human neurology, it would be bizarre to not consider that in the "why".