4 ms·
The article states that all known versions of these 'paradoxes' arise from the axiom of choice. But I believe it isn't known yet whether denying the axiom of ch
by rocqua 4y ago
The article states that all known versions of these 'paradoxes' arise from the axiom of choice. But I believe it isn't known yet whether denying the axiom of choice categorically prevents these paradoxes and allows 'perfect' measures to exist.
Anyone care to clarify?
- pfortuny 4y agoYes, see the math overflow question quoted above. Not choice gives you measures where all sets are measurable.