Can you describe the difference between the "capitalist" model of property rights and the common law model? I wouldn't classify ancient Roman property law as fu

Can you describe the difference between the "capitalist" model of property rights and the common law model? I wouldn't classify ancient Roman property law as fundamentally different from ours today, would you? Would you say that the ancient world practiced capitalism? Surely they had wealthy classes of merchants, landowners, bankers, etc. who accumulated capital and did stuff with it.