I'm arguing my case here: http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/97396/in-russian-roulette-does-the-initial-advantage-of-player-2-count http://math.stackexcha

I'm arguing my case here: http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/97396/in-russian-roulette-does-the-initial-advantage-of-player-2-count http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/97396/in-russian-rou... (in the comments) There seems to be a strange relationship and independence between initial advantage and overall (to the last move) odds in this game that's difficult to define.