2 ms·
The very first denominator seen is (2π)^2n, the last denominator on that line is the same, the first denominator of the second line is π^2n+1 and the second den
by Maursault 4y ago
The very first denominator seen is (2π)^2n, the last denominator on that line is the same, the first denominator of the second line is π^2n+1 and the second denominator in the second line is the same. Are you not seeing that?
- rdlw 4y agoAre you talking about the inequality on the first page? That is at the end of a sentence that starts "The calculation is made from the two inequalities ...". The next sentence is "By isolating π in both cases, we can derive an approximation of the latter." That is not the formula.