5 ms·

But... pi is in the formula. If you already know it, then why bother?

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• davesque 4y ago
  Not sure where you're seeing that. Did you misread a formula?
  • Maursault 4y ago
    The very first denominator seen is (2π)^2n, the last denominator on that line is the same, the first denominator of the second line is π^2n+1 and the second denominator in the second line is the same. Are you not seeing that?
    • rdlw 4y ago
      Are you talking about the inequality on the first page? That is at the end of a sentence that starts "The calculation is made from the two inequalities ...". The next sentence is "By isolating π in both cases, we can derive an approximation of the latter." That is not the formula.
• krick 4y ago
  It isn't.
  • Maursault 4y ago
    Look at the first denominator seen in both lines of the equation, the last denominator in the first part of the equation, and the second denominator in the second part of the equation.
    • hoten 4y ago
      The first equations listed in the abstract of the paper are the inequalities used to derive the equation of interest, which is on the second page.