You are missing my point. If being unable to divide space and time over and over again is the true and only resolution to the paradox, then in a hypothetical wo

You are missing my point. If being unable to divide space and time over and over again is the true and only resolution to the paradox, then in a hypothetical world where you can divide space and time indefinitely, the paradox would not be resolved. So I ask, are you willing to argue that if our spacetime was Euclidean, then we could not move? I would find that claim absurd, after all classical mechanics describes motion in Euclidean space. Is classical mechanics nonsense because it describes motion in a space where motion is not possible?