3 ms·
How is that even mathematically possible? If two random humans have 3 million differences between them, how can a neanderthal only have 30000 differences with e
by ginko 4y ago
How is that even mathematically possible? If two random humans have 3 million differences between them, how can a neanderthal only have 30000 differences with each of them?
edit: I think the idea is that if you take the total set of all genes all modern humans possess, then there's only 30000 of genes the neanderthals have that aren't part of this?
- unnah 4y agoPerhaps there were many differences between different Neanderthal individuals as well, i.e. on the order of 3 million genetic differences, just like there are between modern individuals.
- 082349872349872 4y agoI suspect it's 2 individual h saps are, modally, 3 million bp apart ... but the h neanderthalensis population mean is only 30 thousand bp away from the h sap population mean. (consider intra- vs inter-group differences in h sap genomes) [edit: yeah, maybe the 30k means 30k in the parts of the population blobs which don't overlap: card(neander XOR sap)?]
- notahacker 4y agoI think the key word is all modern humans (i.e. 30,000 genes common to Neanderthals not identified in any modern humans, with humans tending have to bits of other genes associated with Neanderthals but not other human ancestors which differ from human to human) Below that it suggest that 60-70% of the [distinct from other hominid ancestors] Neanderthal genome is shared with a [typical, Eurasian] modern human, which again without more careful wording clashes with general assumption that our DNA has 99.7% overlap with Neanderthals, 98% plus with modern apes (and 60% with fruit flies!)