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Perhaps this happens on a diversity of time frames and in a diversity of contexts? The French historian Fernand Braudel says that during the 1600s the European
by lkrubner 4y ago
Perhaps this happens on a diversity of time frames and in a diversity of contexts? The French historian Fernand Braudel says that during the 1600s the European merchants in India deliberately bought more than they sold, so that Europe was running a trade deficit with India for all of the 1600s. But offering so much money to India meant that India opened up to European merchants, who were then able to turn the situation around during the 1700s. Once they had been invited into every city and every kingdom in the sub-continent, the European merchants were then able to use their international networks gain an advantage over the local merchants. And then they added even more pressure by hiring local mercenaries to enforce their will with military power, thus beginning the conquest of India.
But the pattern seems to repeat on so many levels, and at so many different time frames: pump in money in a manner that seems generous, so as to gain control of a market. Then use that control to maximize one's own profits.
history from Perspective Of The World:
https://www.amazon.com/Perspective-World-Civilization-Capitalism-15Th-18th/dp/0520081161/ https://www.amazon.com/Perspective-World-Civilization-Capita...
- fallingknife 4y agoA trade deficit is not the same as a loss. It means that the UK ended up with more goods and the Indians ended up with more currency. If the goods are more valuable than the currency, it's still an economic gain for the UK. The US runs a trade deficit every year, and is far from going broke.
- HPsquared 4y agoAnd if you count the currency as an "export", it's not really a deficit at all - just exporting currency.