The paper doesn't say that the wage gap is mostly a working gap. It says the earnings gap is mostly a working gap. In other words, both things are true: * Wome

The paper doesn't say that the wage gap is mostly a working gap. It says the earnings gap is mostly a working gap. In other words, both things are true: * Women get paid $9/hr. less than men with the same level of experience (wage gap) * Women work 11 fewer hours per week than men (working gap) .. and the paper claims it's the second factor that is the primary cause of the earnings gap. There's nothing there that either confirms nor refutes discrimination/sexism. Interestingly the paper states: In our data, both the median male and median female doctor work at least 40 hours per week in every experience bin. Despite both being “full-time,” men and women nonetheless work substantially different numbers of hours in our data. The commonly used methodology of estimating earnings equations with no controls for hours worked (apart from restricting the sample to FTFY workers) would conclude that men’s wages are much higher relative to women’s wages than they actually are. In other words, the authors are saying that a naive analysis would support the (in their estimation) incorrect conclusion that the earnings gap is purely a wage gap. If that's true, and their paper takes a new step forward in disambiguating these factors, then it would be unfair to paint the previously held received wisdom as deliberate misinformation and lies.