I don't think you're wrong. The article refers to "the top 1%" but doesn't definitely specify if it means the top 1% of wealth holders or the top 1% of actual w

I don't think you're wrong. The article refers to "the top 1%" but doesn't definitely specify if it means the top 1% of wealth holders or the top 1% of actual workers. If it's wealth holders, then we would expect their gains to mostly come from investment, which are gains that are (theoretically) accessible to everyone. If it's workers, then where are they drawing the line? Do C-suite execs and owners with company stock count toward compensation? Does that really fit the spirit of "wages"?