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I thought that I should have made a note about this in my comment, but I didn’t because the author declares that the article isn’t about the cause of these diff
by ruszki 4y ago
I thought that I should have made a note about this in my comment, but I didn’t because the author declares that the article isn’t about the cause of these differences, or whether these are inherent differences. That’s why it’s strange for me. I think the discussion is about the inherent nature of these, and not whether these exist.
- rajin444 4y agoWestern society has made a huge push for more women in specific industries. The impetus being discrimination against women has resulted in them being under represented. The only way the above is logical is if there are no inherent differences between men and women. Otherwise, we have no way of determining how much disparity is from inherent factors and how much is from environmental. Put another way: if you believe female (or any race) under representation is caused by discrimination you should be able to define the correct level of representation if there was no discrimination (I have yet to see this number defined in any instance, which is concerning because there’s no way to measure impact or progress). Given that we’re broadly implementing much policies is strong evidence that many believe there are no inherent differences.