That's what I'm trying to determine. I expect the answer will be that he already has had to sell to meet margin loan requirements because the stock declined qui

That's what I'm trying to determine. I expect the answer will be that he already has had to sell to meet margin loan requirements because the stock declined quickly from a very high level. I also expect he took margin loans at lower prices, before the run-up. Elon publicly stated he would not sell Tesla shares for two years. That could be technically correct while his broker sold shares to meet their margin loan terms. However, Tesla's policy would probably kick-in before an actual margin call. The complexity comes in when a lapdog board lets things like this slide.