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That's exactly how central bank lending works. You have a fallacy of composition. In reality the central bank doesn't lend to banks. The banks lend to each oth
by neilwilson 4y ago
That's exactly how central bank lending works. You have a fallacy of composition.
In reality the central bank doesn't lend to banks. The banks lend to each other and they do arbitrarily 'create money' to do so.
The commercial banks have accounts with each other. That's what interbank lending is, and what they clear to at the end of the day.
In Bank A it is DR Bank B, CR Customer 2 Deposit. In Bank B it is DR Customer 1 Loan, CR Bank A. They can't clear interbank payments unless that happens.[1]
The Bank of England has a full document on it [0]
[0]: https://www.bankofengland.co.uk/-/media/boe/files/quarterly-bulletin/2014/money-creation-in-the-modern-economy.pdf https://www.bankofengland.co.uk/-/media/boe/files/quarterly-...
[1]: https://new-wayland.com/blog/why-banks-pay-interest-on-deposits/ https://new-wayland.com/blog/why-banks-pay-interest-on-depos...
- reese_john 4y ago> In reality the central bank doesn't lend to banks. Central banks absolutely do lend to banks through discount window lending and other means. > The commercial banks have accounts with each other. That's what interbank lending is, and what they clear to at the end of the day. > In Bank A it is DR Bank B, CR Customer 2 Deposit. In Bank B it is DR Customer 1 Loan, CR Bank A. They can't clear interbank payments unless that happens.[1] There is not a one true way to do interbank lending, since it depends on regulation and the underlying market infrastructure used - therefore it is not a fact that banks arbitrarily 'create money' to do so. Banks can lend to each other using central counterparty clearing houses (CCP) as intermediates, in that case, Bank A and Bank B will have accounts with the CCP, who will do all the clearing & settlement.