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That claim is false in Europe. You need to ask permission for this approach, because you're storing something on the user's device (the generated date in the ca
by t0mas88 4y ago
That claim is false in Europe. You need to ask permission for this approach, because you're storing something on the user's device (the generated date in the cache) that isn't strictly necessarily. The ePrivacy directive says you need permission for that, nowhere does the law specify "cookies" it's about any kind of data stored on the user device.
- jefftk 4y agoUh, yes? That's exactly what I've been saying upthread.
- mgrund 4y agoTrue it does not matter if it’s a cookie, or whatever. You need to look to the ePrivacy directive article 5.3 for which exemption case applies. In the case of timestamps, it would be case A : > when the cookie is used “for the sole purpose of carrying out the transmission of a communication over an electronic communications network” (“Exemption A“) Since the timestamp is no longer used solely for this purpose, you need consent.